Faith & Works
Introduction

Faith alone in Christ is what justifies (declares you righteous before God)

THERE IS NO OTHER WAY TO BE RIGHT WITH GOD

John 14:6 "Jesus said to him, 'I am the way, the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father, but through Me.'"

Acts 4:12 "And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men, by which we must be saved."

John 3:36 "He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but He who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him."

1. Is God being unfair?

Remember man's condition from God's viewpoint: No one genuinely seeks for God (Romans 3:11).

See Matthew 20:1-15. It is real grace on God's part to save anyone. The LORD does not want anyone in heaven to think that they are any better than those who did not make it (1 Cor. 1:29 and Ephesians 2:9); therefore He does not chose us on the basis of anything that we do either before or after we are justified (Philippians 3:9, Titus 3:5).

Romans 9:16 "So then it does not depend on the man who wills or the man who runs, but on God who has mercy" (See context Romans 9:6-23). This should keep us humble and thankful for our salvation.

2. But how do I know if I'm saved?

John 6:37 "All that the Father gives Me shall come to Me; and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out." From our vantage point, if we come to Him (Matthew 11:28-30) on His terms and believe in Him (John 6:47), then we have eternal life.

JUSTIFICATION APPENDIX A: FAITH PLUS WORKS

There is the prevalent, perennial misconception that faith alone in the finished work of Jesus Christ on Calvary's cross is not enough to make a man right with God. Some mistakenly believe that (in addition to faith in Christ) good works are necessary for salvation. One important group that is ensnared in this unsaving teaching is the Roman Catholic 'Church' (RCC).

The RCC begins by teaching, and rightfully so, that only by the grace merited by Christ can salvation be acquired. Grace is taught to be a gift from God conferred on created beings "in order to bring them to eternal life"* (p.176). The Roman Catholics then proceed to define grace as "empowerment to live the moral life" (pp. 192-193). Furthermore, the RCC teaching about the distribution of God's grace is that, "the amount of grace to be given depends in no small part on our own good deeds" (p. 432). What is being taught here is that through faith in Jesus Christ, men are eligible to receive power from God to do good deeds which, in addition to Christ's work, are not only considered to merit heaven for the doer, but to acquire for him more grace to do more good deeds . . . . Here, we see that the RCC teaches that faith plus works is necessary to be worthy of heaven.

What do the Scriptures say to these teachings?

Ephesians 2:8-10 God's grace is given through faith, not though good deeds. Faith alone is the only means by which God's grace is given to us. Here we see clearly taught that salvation is through faith and not as a result of works. It is only by His grace (unmerited favor, mercy) that God saves us.

Romans 11:6 But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace. Here we see that the RCC concept of earned grace is Scripturally impossible. For if grace depends on works, it is no longer grace, by this Scriptural definition. God gives grace completely free or not at all.

Romans 4:4-6 Note that God reckons righteousness apart from works.

Isaiah 64:6 "But we are all as an unclean thing, and all of our righteousnesses are as filthy rags . . . " How can filthy rags merit heaven for anyone? We cannot be saved by our works, because it is on the basis of our works that we are condemned.

Titus 3:5 "Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us . . . ." No one has earned any portion of the grace of God. It is only according to God's mercy that we are saved, praise the LORD]]]

* Quotations are from The Catholic Catechism, by John A. Hardon S.J., Doubleday & Co., Inc., 1975. This catechism was written after Vatican II and quotes extensively from that Council. It has both the Imprimatur and the Nihil Obstat, official declarations by authoritative officials in the RCC that a book is in conformity with Roman Catholic doctrine.

The Documents of Vatican II

Revelation Chapter II The Transmission of Divine Revelation

9. Hence there exists a close connection and communication between sacred tradition and sacred Scripture. For both of them, flowing from the same divine wellspring, in a certain way merge into a unity and tend toward the same end. For sacred Scripture is the Word of God in as much as it is consigned to writing under the inspiration of the divine Spirit, while sacred tradition takes the Word of God entrusted by Christ the Lord and the Holy Spirit to the Apostles, and hands it on to their successors in its full purity, so that led by the light of the Spirit of truth, they may in proclaiming it preserve this Word of God faithfully, explain it, and make it more widely known. Consequently it is not from sacred Scripture alone that the Church draws her certainty about everything which has been revealed. Therefore both sacred tradition and sacred Scripture are to be accepted and venerated with the same sense of loyalty and reverence [6].

The Council of Trent

The Sixth Session Celebrated on the thirteenth day of the month of January, 1547.

DECREE ON JUSTIFICATION

CANON XII.-If any one saith, that justifying faith is nothing else but

confidence in the divine mercy which remits sins for Christ's sake; or,

that this confidence alone is that whereby we are justified; let him be

anathema.

CANON XXIV.-If any one saith, that the justice received is not preserved

and also increased before God through good works; but that the said

works are merely the fruits and signs of Justification obtained, but not

a cause of the increase thereof; let him be anathema.

1994 Catechism of the Catholic Church

"By Baptism all sins are forgiven, original sin and all personal sins, as well as all punishment for sin." Pg. 321, #1263 (See pg. 257, #985)

Are the sacraments necessary for salvation? "The Church affirms that for believers the sacraments of the New Covenant are necessary for salvation." Pg. 292, #1129

Is there a contradiction between James and Paul concerning saving faith?

Passage in focus: James 2:14-26

Background

Paul discusses in Romans 4 and Galatians 3 Abraham's faith in God as the basis of his justification, that and not his circumcision or any works of the law.

One main theme of James: The evidences of Saving Faith

James 1:3 because you know that the testing of your faith develops perseverance.

James 1:22 Do not merely listen to the word, and so deceive yourselves. Do what it says.

James 2:8 Love your neighbor as yourself

Immediate context

caring for someone in need

If your faith is just knowing the facts intellectually and not living out your what you know to be true then your faith is not Biblical saving faith and is on same level as that of the demons, who know the truth but do not live according to the truth and are going to hell, in fact they shudder.

Abraham and Rahab examples of those who evidence saving faith.

The Greek word Justified in verses 21, 24 and 25 means in the context to show or evidence one to be righteous.

In verse 21 James sites when Abraham offered up Isaac in Genesis 22, and showed from that passage that Abraham was in fact declared Righteous (Justified) in Genesis 15:6. so his faith was made evident by his action.

James 2:14 What use is it, my brethren, if a man says he has faith, but he has no works? Can that faith save him? 15 If a brother or sister is without clothing and in need of daily food, 16 and one of you says to them, "Go in peace, be warmed and be filled," and yet you do not give them what is necessary for {their} body, what use is that? 17 Even so faith, if it has no works, is dead, {being} by itself. 18 But someone may {well} say, "You have faith, and I have works; show me your faith without the works, and I will show you my faith by my works." 19 You believe that God is one. You do well; the demons also believe, and shudder. 20 But are you willing to recognize, you foolish fellow, that faith without works is useless? 21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he offered up Isaac his son on the altar? 22 You see that faith was working with his works, and as a result of the works, faith was perfected; 23 and the Scripture was fulfilled which says, "AND ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS RECKONED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS," and he was called the friend of God. 24 You see that a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone. 25 And in the same way was not Rahab the harlot also justified by works, when she received the messengers and sent them out by another way? 26 For just as the body without {the} spirit is dead, so also faith without works is dead. Ephesians 2:8 For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith —and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God — 9 not by works, so that no one can boast. 10 For we are GodŐs workmanship, created in Christ Jesus to do good works, which God prepared in advance for us to do.

Galatians 3:6 Consider Abraham: "He believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness." 7 Understand, then, that those who believe are children of Abraham. 8 The Scripture foresaw that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, and announced the gospel in advance to Abraham: "All nations will be blessed through you." 9 So those who have faith are blessed along with Abraham, the man of faith. 10 All who rely on observing the law are under a curse, for it is written: "Cursed is everyone who does not continue to do everything written in the Book of the Law." 11 Clearly no one is justified before God by the law, because, "The righteous will live by faith." 12 The law is not based on faith; on the contrary, "The man who does these things will live by them." 13 Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us, for it is written: "Cursed is everyone who is hung on a tree." 14 He redeemed us in order that the blessing given to Abraham might come to the Gentiles through Christ Jesus, so that by faith we might receive the promise of the Spirit. 15 Brothers, let me take an example from everyday life. Just as no one can set aside or add to a human covenant that has been duly established, so it is in this case. 16 The promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. The Scripture does not say "and to seeds," meaning many people, but "and to your seed," meaning one person, who is Christ. 17 What I mean is this: The law, introduced 430 years later, does not set aside the covenant previously established by God and thus do away with the promise. 18 For if the inheritance depends on the law, then it no longer depends on a promise; but God in his grace gave it to Abraham through a promise.

Thus James statement 'you see that a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone' is in agreement with Paul. In context we saw that by faith James means 'intellectual assent', and by works, he means 'deeds done as a result of true faith which visualize it.' This is essentially the same as Paul's statement, Titus 1:16 They claim to know God, but by their actions they deny him. They are detestable, disobedient and unfit for doing anything good.

Salvation is a free gift. Any attempt to buy it on our part, especially considering that our good deeds are filthy rags in God's sight (Isaiah 64:6), is insulting to God, and results in our condemnation]

Behold I, Paul, say to you that if you receive circumcision (in order to be saved), Christ will be of no benefit to you. And I testify again to every man who receives circumcision, that he is under obligation to keep the whole Law. You have been severed from Christ, you who are seeking to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace. Galatians 5:2-4

Note that it is clear that the Galatians believed in Jesus; the question at hand was whether it was necessary to also be circumcised and obey the law of Moses. Paul says that if they are circumcised for this purpose, Christ will profit them nothing. If Christ profits them nothing, then they are clearly lost.

We see then that there are only two choices:

a. We can (gratefully) accept a free gift, our eternal salvation.

b. We can attempt to buy it, and receive our condemnation.

This is summed up in Romans 6:23 - "For the wages of sin is dead, but the free gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord."

We should understand that the belief in working for our salvation is not a minor mistake, but is one which leaves a person lost.

BUT - How can I be sure that I have really trusted the LORD?

a) By the fruit of the Spirit in us. Specifically see 2 Peter 1:3-11 and Galatians 5:22-23. Ask yourself: do I measure up on every way I know in believing Biblical doctrines as the Bible presents them, and am I progressing in the elements of sanctification listed in 2 Peter 1:3-11?

b) Note the difference between gifts and fruit; gifts are easy for Satan to fake, but fruit is not (Matthew 7:16-20). Remember that tongues, prophecy, or other special gifts do not automatically imply that one is even saved (Matthew 7:21-23). Note from Matthew 7:23 what really counts: a genuine love for the Lord that expresses itself in obedience (John 14:21, Hebrews 5:9, Hebrews 4:6)

JUSTIFICATION APPENDIX B: THE LORD'S SUPPER

What about the Lord's Supper? Did not Jesus say that it is essential for salvation (John 6:33-69)? This passage in John is a favorite section used by the Roman Catholic Church to 'prove' that the Mass is essential for salvation. The problem is that when we consider the context, we find that Jesus is speaking figuratively. Note verse 35 (quoted from the Jerusalem Bible, a modern Catholic translation):

I am the bread of life. He who comes to me will never be hungary; he who believes in me will never thirst.

Thus if we eat and drink of Jesus by coming to Him and believing in Him, we will be saved. To take this passage more literally than Jesus intends it to be taken would force us to add a condition to God's covenant with Abraham concerning the method of salvation (Galatians 3, especially verses 15-17). Further, in verse 63 (Jerusalem Bible):

It is the spirit that gives life, the flesh has nothing to offer. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and they are life."

Again Jesus is telling us that His earlier statements like verse 54 ("Anyone who does eat my flesh and drink my blood has eternal life, and I shall raise him up on the last day") were meant to be taken symbolically.

Does the bread and wine offered by the priest literally become the body and blood of Christ? One major argument used by the RCC is that when Jesus offered the bread and wine to His disciples at the Last Supper, He said that it was His body and blood, so of course it must literally have been His body and blood. However, note Jesus' comment in Matthew 26:27-29 (NASB):

"And He took a cup and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, 'Drink from it all of you; for this is My blood of the covenant, which is to be shed on behalf of many for forgiveness of sins. But I say to you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it new with you in My Father's kingdom."

Here we have Jesus' own personal testimony that what he has given the disciples to drink is the fruit of the vine, not literally His blood. How can we trust an organization that tells us that its interpretation of the Bible is the ONLY correct one when they have plainly built a doctrine (that must be understood correctly in order to avoid eternal damnation, see Romans 4:4 and 6:23) on verses obviously and clearly ripped out of their context?

JUSTIFICATION APPENDIX C: WATER BAPTISM

The argument commonly used to teach that water baptism is necessary for salvation is this: God uses the water as the means to wash away our sins and to clothe us in Christ so that we are dead to sin; ie., the grace that is essential for salvation is received through the water baptism. According to this false teaching, one is not saved until he has been baptized.

NOTE:

Such people would argue that because baptism is a God-appointed means for receiving His grace, it cannot be considered a 'work' done to merit salvation.

ARGUMENT ONE: DISPENSATIONAL.

It is sometimes argued that baptism today is equivalent to the circumcision which First Testament believers were commanded to receive. The attempt is then made to argue that since FT believers were circumcised as a means for receiving God's grace, we must be baptized in order to receive that grace today. But were FT believers really circumcised in order to receive God's grace? Note Paul's argument in Romans 4:9-13:

'Faith was credited to Abraham as righteousness.' How then was it credited? While he was circumcised, or uncircumcised? Not while circumcised, but while uncircumcised; and he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while uncircumcised, that he might be the father of all who believe without being circumcised, that righteousness might be credited to them, and the father of circumcision to those who not only are of the circumcision, but who also follow in the steps of the faith of our father Abraham which he had while uncircumcised. For the promise of Abraham or to his descendants . . . was not through the Law, but through the righteousness of faith.

Note that Abraham's faith was credited as righteousness before he was circumcised, and further, he is to be an example (father) of faith for us today. Further, Paul asserts that circumcision was an outward sign or seal of faith, not a means for receiving that faith (or grace). Thus FT believers were made right with God 'through the righteousness of faith;' we find no grounds here for saying that circumcision was some earlier 'means of grace.'

The example of Abraham is actually a proof that God grants men the grace to repent and believe in Him without the means of circumcision, baptism, or any other physical action. The Holy Spirit is not limited by ceremony in His dealings with men.

ARGUMENT TWO: EXAMPLES TAKEN FROM ACTS.

Acts 2:38 "Then Peter said to them, 'Repent, and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit."

The problem here is that the Greek word 'eis' (pronounced 'ace') has about the same usage and range of meaning as the English word 'for'. Are we baptized "in order to obtain" (ex: we jump for the ball), or are we baptized "as a result of" (ex. jumping for joy)? We cannot hang an entire doctrine on the meaning of one preposition.

Acts 22:16 "And now why do you tarry? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord."

The important question is: What washes away Paul's sins - water baptism or calling on His name? Paul answers this question himself in Romans 10:13: "whoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved" (read context: in Romans 10 there are no references to baptism).

In light of this assertion, it is most reasonable that the physical washing is only symbolic of the spiritual washing that a repentant sinner receives from the Holy Spirit (Titus 3:5) when he turns and asks for forgiveness from the Lord.

What is the purpose of Peter and Ananias's commands to be baptized (Acts 2:38 and Acts 22:16), if baptism is not essential in order to procure salvation? One reasonable explanation is that they were using baptism as a test of the heart, in much the same manner as we use an invitation at the close of the service. The physical act of going forward or raising a hand does not save a person - it is merely 'the outward sign of an inward grace.'

That this is Peter's understanding of baptism is clear from 1 Peter 3:21: Speaking of Noah in the flood, "And this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you also - not the removal of dirt from the body, but the pledge of a good conscience toward God - through the resurrection of Jesus Christ." Baptism is then 'the pledge of a good conscience', ie., an outward sign of faith.

That the physical act ('removal of dirt from the body') does nothing is clear from this verse also, despite the fact that people will often rip the first phrase out of its context. Peter is not talking about the physical act as saving but the spiritual reality that it symbolizes Namely that Christ saves evidenced by His Resurrection.

For those who might be tempted to base their doctrine on examples from the book of Acts rather than on extended passages which clearly set down the way of salvation (such as Romans 3 and 4, Galatians 3), it is important to note these counter-examples in Acts:

Acts 3:19 "Repent therefore and return, that your sins may be wiped away, in order that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord."

Note that Peter asserts that repentance wipes away sin. There are no references to baptism in the context of his preaching here.

Acts 10:43-44, 46-47 "'Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins.' While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. Then Peter answered, 'Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?'"

Note that Peter preached that everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins. The gentiles listening to these words, believed and then immediately received the Holy Spirit before they were baptized. Clearly the Holy Spirit can work in a person's heart and regenerate them without the means of water baptism.

Acts 13:38-39, 48 "Therefore let it be known to you, brethren, that through Him forgiveness of sins is proclaimed to you, and through Him everyone who believes is justified from all things, from which you could not be justified through the Law of Moses. And as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed."

Certainly by 'through Him' Paul means what he says in Romans 3:22: "the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe." Note the emphasis on believing in Christ, and the lack of any references to baptism.

Acts 15:9, 11 "He (God) made no difference between us and them, cleansing their hearts by faith. But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they also were."

Peter here states that faith is what cleanses our hearts; no external means are necessary.

Acts 16:30-33 "'Sirs, what must I do to be saved?' And they said, 'Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you shall be saved, you and your household.' And they spoke the word of the Lord to him together with all who were in his house. And he took them that very hour of the night and washed their wounds, and immediately he was baptized, he and all his. And he brought them into his house and set food before them, and rejoiced greatly, having believed in God with his whole household." Note again that belief is the crucial point; that he was baptized after the apostle's wounds were washed implies that the baptism was not considered necessary for salvation, for certainly this man and his family's salvation would be more important to Paul and Silas than merely getting their wounds cleaned up.

ARGUMENT THREE: 'EXTENDED' PASSAGES TAKEN OUT OF CONTEXT.

Commonly people will refer to assorted verses or examples from Scripture to demonstrate that baptism is necessary for salvation. , In this section, we will consider these passages in their Biblical context.

John 3:4-6 "Jesus answered and said to him, 'Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.' Nicodemus said to Him, 'How can a man be born when he is old? He cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb and be born, can he?' Jesus answered, 'Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.'" Is 'born of water' in verse 5 supposed to be a clear reference to water baptism? Since this phrase never occurs again in the Scriptures, we have no other passages to turn to clarify the meaning of 'born of water'.

Note however that physical birth is easily described by this term, since the breaking of the amniotic sac (releasing a good quantity of clear fluid commonly called 'water') signals the start of childbirth. It is quite possible then that 'born of water' is a figurative expression for physical birth.

But is this reasonable? John 1:13 gives strong support to this idea: "those who believe in His name, who are born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." The phrase 'born of blood' cannot refer to Christ's blood, because other clear verses tell us that it is the payment for our sins (Hebrews 9:14). However, it is commonly known that a fair amount of bleeding accompanies childbirth; thus the phrase 'born of blood' is clearly a figurative expression for physical birth.

The BEST way to handle this problem verse is to look again at the context. Note that Nicodemus took Jesus in the literal physical sense when He stated that a man must be born again. To clarify Himself, Jesus responds that a man must be born both physically and spiritually. Note exactly how Jesus answers: He first says says that a man must be "born of water and of the spirit." It appears that Jesus might be making a distinction between 'born of water' and 'born of the spirit' since He does not say "born of water, that is, of the spirit." Thankfully, Jesus continues in verse 6, and clarifies Himself: "That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit." We see then that with the context of verse 6, our estimation of verse 5 is correct: Jesus is telling Nicodemus that a man must be born twice to see the kingdom of God, first by being born of the flesh (born of water), and second by being born of the Spirit. This parallelism between verses 5 and 6 is a firm contextual basis for asserting that 'born of water' means physical birth, and not water baptism.

Mark 16:16 Sorry, this verse occurs at the very end of the Gospel of Mark, and is not found in the oldest, most reliable manuscripts. Certainly we should not base our doctrines on verses whose origin is questionable, since we then have no proof that they were inspired by God. Even so, the emphasis is in belief not in baptism.

Romans 6:3-5 is the most extended passage which could be construed to teach that a literal water baptism is necessary for salvation. Quoting verses 1-7:

"What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin that grace might increase? May it never be! How shall we who died to sin still live in it? Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death? Therefore we have been buried with Him through baptism into death, in order that as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in newness of life. For if we have become united with Him in the likeness of His death, certainly we shall be also in the likeness of His resurrection, knowing this, that our old self was crucified with Him, that our body of sin might be done away with, that we should be no longer slaves to sin; for he who has died is freed from sin."

Which baptism makes us dead to sin?

IMPORTANT: The Scriptures clearly speak of two baptisms (or washings): a literal believer's immersion (Acts 2:41), and a baptism of the Holy Spirit received by every believer as evidenced by the following verses:

Mark 1:8 "I baptized you with water; but He (Jesus) will baptize you with the Holy Spirit." This statement by John the Baptist is a strong testimony to the relative power of these two types of baptism.

Titus 3:5 "He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit." Clearly the washing and renewing from the Holy Spirit saves us.

Ephesians 1:13 "In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation - having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise."

What is the Gospel

1 Corinthians 15:1 Now I make known to you, brethren, the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received, in which also you stand, 2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain. 3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures,

1 Corinthians 1:17 "For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel - not with words of human wisdom, lest the cross of Christ be emptied of its power."

Would Paul have made a statement like this if baptism were essential for salvation?

1 Corinthians12:13 For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit.

Romans 8:13 Note that it is by the Spirit that we put to death the deeds of the body (sin).

Romans 8:9 "However you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him."

This verse is crucial: Paul is asserting that unless we have the Holy Spirit dwelling in us, we are not even saved. Thus it is essential that we receive (be washed by, be baptized in) the Holy Spirit if we are to be saved. It is quite clear then that it is the baptism of the Holy Spirit that makes us dead to sin.

BUT - is the Holy Spirit received when we are baptized with water?

Note that Paul in Galatians 3:14 says that we "receive the promise of the Holy Spirit through faith."

The argument which Paul gives in Galatians is extremely relevant; note that in 3:15, 17-18 the apostle says: "Brethren, I speak in terms of human relations: even though it is only a man's covenant, yet when it has been ratified, no one sets it aside or adds conditions to it. What I am saying is this: the Law, which came four hundred and thirty years later, does not invalidate a covenant previously ratified by God so as to nullify the promise. For if the inheritance is based on law, it is no longer based on a promise; but God has granted it to Abraham by means of a promise."

Remember that "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness" (Galatians 3:6).

***IMPORTANT***

Paul is challenging those who argued that a person must believe in Jesus and be circumcised in order to be saved. His argument is this: since Abraham was counted as righteous on the basis of faith before he was circumcised, circumcision cannot now be regarded as necessary for salvation. Why? Because God will not change His mind and add any conditions to His original promise to Abraham. Note that Paul is giving a general argument: God will never change the basis for salvation: it was the same for Abraham as it is for us. What is that basis? Not circumcision, baptism, or any physical act: God granted the Holy Spirit and His righteousness to Abraham because he trusted that God could and would keep His promises.

One additional note on Romans 6: Paul is no longer discussing the way of salvation in this chapter; he has settled it back in chapters 3 and 4, where he concluded: "therefore having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ" (Romans 5:1). Look at Romans 6:1; the question Paul is about to consider is not "how can I be saved?", but rather that after we have been justified "are we to continue in sin that grace might increase?"

Paul argues in chapter 6 that our old self has been crucified with Christ, and so we are no longer the slaves of sin; therefore we should no longer let sin reign in our mortal bodies and be subject to its lusts. After we are saved, the Holy Spirit gives us the power to overcome sinful habits that we could not break before. To take Paul's analogy between the figurative 'burial' of immersion in water and burial with Christ after His death to mean that somehow water baptism confers Christ's blood atonement to us is to completely miss Paul's intent here. By faith, and faith alone, are we counted as righteous before God.

WHY BOTHER WITH BAPTISM THEN?

In Acts 26:20 Paul says, "repent and turn to God, and do deeds in keeping with repentance." Paul's comment here is that a true repentance for sin should be accompanied with an earnest desire to be obedient to the Lord's commands. Since Jesus did command that believers should be baptized (Matthew 28:19), we might say that baptism is essential for obedience. Someone who claims to be saved yet who refuses to be baptized is simply not trusting Jesus enough to do what He says, and one could question if such 'trust' is saving faith. But to say that baptism is essential for salvation is to add a condition to God's covenant with Abraham (Galatians 3), which God condemns (Galatians 5:2-4, Romans 4:4-6).

So then, Water baptism is an analogy of the internal renewing by the Holy Spirit.

Contributed by FM